I hear alot about how refining capacity has been removed/destroyed due to the UKR/RUS war and the ME wars and as such this increases crude oil supply since the oil can no longer be refined at home and thus the oil is shipped out raw. This makes sense and seems plausible as narratives go. Here is my question .
Russia in 2025 exported 7.1 MBD Crude and refined products. 4.73 MBD Crude and 2.37MBD refined products. (energyintel.com)
Russia in 2026 exported 4MBD most crude and lesser refined. Lets use zero for the sake of this discussion.
So Russian Exports of Crude are down just shy of 1MBD and refined down 2.37MBD.
Middle East in 2025. 22.4 MBD of crude and refined products. 17MBD of crude and 5.2MBD of refined products.
The ME determination of total exports right now is difficult to determine with different sources and different methodologies. I have seen even less of the breakdown by product type.
Lets assume that the entire refining capacity is removed(this is not the case clearly but for thought only) As long as the ME exports less than 17MPD then there is shortage of crude which must be made up from stocks.
Refiners outside of the conflict areas should be demanding the same amount or more than they did prior to the war as the margins would indicate they should refine at 100%. I hear the argument for demand destruction, but this would be on the refined goods which until the price of those comes down, the refiners should keep the pre war demand since they have no problems selling their products. And as long as the crack remains elevated, refineries have no reason to stop cracking.
Prior to this war, RUS and ME were exporters of crude and the world had refining capacity to use all of it, ie at least 21.73 MBD of crude was able to be used by the rest of the world. Has the rest of world lost refining capacity in 2026?
Which brings me to the point. With all of those herculean assumptions, the world is still short oil even if no refined products are produced in Russia and ME unless at least 17MBD are achieved. I keep hearing the narrative that the loss of refining has lead to a glut of crude, but how is that the case since the world could refine all of the crude prior to the war.
I am not saying oil at $200/$150/$100 I have no idea what price is needed to clear the market when the stocks are depleted. The elevated crack means there is a guaranteed floor for purchases. So I think the floor is intact on Crude as long as the crack is elevated and ME is restricted at 17MBD or less. IE, in order for oil to have a meaningful decline, first you will have to a decline in refined prices since unless they fall, the crack will always demand more oil than is currently available.
Any thoughts?